Here's a Post from one of the critics who simply copied a source from an out-of-context quote and misunderstood the interpretation, everyone who claimed to know a thing, ends up ignorant on the issue. Let's find out -
From the life of Joseph Smith in his address to David W. Patten -
Verily, thus saith the Lord: It is wisdom in my servant David W. Patten, that he settle up all his business as soon as he possibly can, and make a disposition of his merchandise, that he may perform a mission unto me next spring, in company with others, even twelve including himself, to testify of my name and bear glad tidings unto the world.
Joseph Smith, Doctrine & Covenants 114:1, This prophecy was made on April 17, 1838. David W. Patten died in October of 1838 and thus never went on a mission the following spring.
Okay, so first, I want to shorten my comments. There were reasons that this prophecy wasn't fulfilled, and those reasons don't make someone a false prophet.
1. Persecutions were raging - David Patten died a martyr and experienced much persecution even if he needed to go to serve the Lord in some place called for him, but persecution is rising to a different level. He was willing to serve but persecution didn't let him to. Does this mean false prophecy?
2. Situation - When Jonas prophesied about the destruction of Nineveh, but God didn't let it, does that mean he is a false prophet? Of course not, everything has set into its conditions or sometimes situations. Another thing was, that Christ prophesied about his return while a generation of men in his days would not pass away to see him come again, did it happen? No! Was Christ a false prophet? Of course not! There were reasons behind it. I would like to add it soon after I made this article. Anyway, As Christ once said, it's "thy (God's) well". If God sees it doesn't fit that way, then it's all his well be done.
This was a classic criticism that they mostly quote scripture like Deuteronomy 18:22 to find it a failed prophecy but fail to understand the rest of the scriptures just as I gave recently.
When a prophet speaks in the name of the Lord, if the thing does not happen, or come to pass, that is the thing which the Lord has not spoken, but the prophet hath spoken it presumptuously: thou shalt not be afraid of him.- Deuteronomy 18:22
So why was that? Is it all about picking up a ripe cherry while justifying the rest of the context?
More of these articles are in this link below -
