Jerry Nuñez Bustillo
According to the cult defender that Jesus is another God ? Another God!? Wow, that's new. When did I say that? But yeah maybe since he is the son of God. So why would I disagree? Or maybe you misunderstood the scriptures as always. Did Jesus says that I and the Father sre two God's ? Is that really how your minister understands the scripture? Was it the way you translate in your private interpretation? So we have to take it word for word to maintain the teachings? You guys are so poor at understanding the scriptures. You are almost 100% ignorant of the truth. Anyway, let deal with it.
He is relying to the wrong translation of the bible using Heb. 1:8. And who told you it was wrong? Where in the world did you get that idea that scripture is wrong. It could be a different translation but it must be studied and never be concluded as wrong not unless you receive revelation to correct it. But no, you people don't have that. Felix Manalo never received a revelation to correct every error but rather a revelation to defame other religions, especially the Catholics, and write it in Pasugo as the pure gospel of Christ. Seriously?
But in we have the two translation of the Bible that clarify us this verse Heb . 1:8. Okay, go ahead a let's study that version.
Hebrew 1:8 “Your throne, O god” nothing new here just pasted it.
Various bible versions differ in their renditions of Hebrew 1:8. Notice the difference, let us quote the verse from two different versions of the bible: we all know that. But let's supposed to use that scripture of yours.
“But of the Son he says, ‘THY THRONE, O GOD, IS FOREVER AND EVER’…” New American standard bible
I just don't know what are you up to in this version? Maybe I'll get it after reading the whole thing.
“But of the son he says, ‘God is your throne forever and ever!’…” Godspeed translation
Here he uses the Goodspeed translation and proclaims it as the right translation. So my question is, did you read and accept the entire Godspeed Translation as authentic and the right translation of the Bible? If so, then it supposes that You had understood the Content and context of the writings in Hebrew 1 using Godspeed Translation?
The New American Standard Bible’s rendition exemplifies those translations of Hebrews 1:8 in which it appears as though the Son were addressed “O God” by the father, whereas that of the Godspeed translation typifies those bible versions where it has no indication that the father called the son as God, but states instead that the throne of the Son is God. One bible version even combines the two different translations and renders Hebrews 1:8 this way: no it does not combine. It's just your assumption, the translation process is never that way. You simply don't know how it goes.
“But of the Son he says, ‘Your throne, O God, is {Or [God is your throne]} forever and ever’…” New revised Standard version
It makes no sense. You just keep using a word game jumping off the topic by selecting just a few versions. Can you clarify the rest of the versions that I used the last time? Or maybe no.
One thing that explains the disparity in various Bible translations is the fact that the bible has been translated into several languages, that in the process, some alternations have been made resulting from, among others, the idiosyncrasy of languages, differences in shades of meaning and dissimilarity in interpretation by different translators as well as their theological bias. Bias? So you're saying there just one version could be right, and the rest are just failures? Will that include LAMSA, MOFFAT'S, NORLIE, and some selected version for cherry-picking of your doctrine and how it fits in the INC side?
It cannot be denied that many bible versions are done by people or groups of people with their own beliefs that subjectively influenced their versions, thereby producing translations with tainted, if not twisted, meaning. This means you do understand that the Godspeed translation is one of those versions produced by uninspired people. Then you should consider reversing it using the Revelation from your last Messenger who should write the missing puzzle of the scriptures. But I guess he had no time in doing that since it was his mission just to write an article in Pasugo about Catholicism and Protestantism to brainwash people by just exposing which was only the Darkside of it.
So how then, are we to know which particular translation of the bible to use, for example, in a particular verse? Apostle Paul states the guiding principle we should employ, thus: how are we to know? You use Paul's words in comparing scripture versions as to which one should you use and pick just part of your doctrine. Was that it?
“These things we also speak, not in words which man’s wisdom teaches but which the holy spirit teaches, comparing spiritual things with spiritual.” I Cor. 2:13 oh good to know, now you have the spirit to teach you the truth but you never believe there's such thing as Spirit of God. The spirit was given and how did you receive it? If that's be the case then how did you compare just one or two versions was ever correct while the rest are wrong? Do you have any witness to your divine revelations? And Paul clearly said -
It cannot be denied that many bible versions are done by people or groups of people with their own beliefs that subjectively influenced their versions, thereby producing translations with tainted, if not twisted, meaning. This means you do understand that the Godspeed translation is one of those versions produced by uninspired people. Then you should consider reversing it using the Revelation from your last Messenger who should write the missing puzzle of the scriptures. But I guess he had no time in doing that since it was his mission just to write an article in Pasugo about Catholicism and Protestantism to brainwash people by just exposing which was only the Darkside of it.
So how then, are we to know which particular translation of the bible to use, for example, in a particular verse? Apostle Paul states the guiding principle we should employ, thus: how are we to know? You use Paul's words in comparing scripture versions as to which one should you use and pick just part of your doctrine. Was that it?
“These things we also speak, not in words which man’s wisdom teaches but which the holy spirit teaches, comparing spiritual things with spiritual.” I Cor. 2:13 oh good to know, now you have the spirit to teach you the truth but you never believe there's such thing as Spirit of God. The spirit was given and how did you receive it? If that's be the case then how did you compare just one or two versions was ever correct while the rest are wrong? Do you have any witness to your divine revelations? And Paul clearly said -
2 Corinthians 13:1This is the third time I am coming to you. In the mouth of two or three witnesses shall every word be established.
But I guessed you don't have any if you can prove it to me, and I'll admit I'm wrong. But if not, then there's no such thing as divine revelations in INC. You don't claim you have the spirit to guide you to the truth, but maybe you have a conscience to stop the lying and deceive people to your doctrine of man.
Because spiritual things should be compared with spiritual truths, there must be no contradiction among verses of the Bible. Yes sure, so you admit that both of those versions are correct? As a rule therefore in determining which rendition of a particular verse expresses the truth, a verse should not be in opposition to any other verse of the bible because god, in whose will and guidance the bible was written, is not the author of confusion (I Cor. 14:33). So basically, the majority wins. And still, you stick to just one version to defend your INC Doctrine of Man. So, why was that?
It is for this reason that the Church of Christ believes that any translation of Hebrews 1:8 that puts it in such a way that Christ is being acknowledge as god by the father is unquestionably erroneous because such rendition categorically contradicts the following statements of the father himself: ok, so let's add Goodspeed Version as your authentic Bible version. Below are the scriptures he used vs the Goodspeed Translation in Green text.
“Acknowledge that I alone am God and that there is no else like me.” Isa. 46:9
But I guessed you don't have any if you can prove it to me, and I'll admit I'm wrong. But if not, then there's no such thing as divine revelations in INC. You don't claim you have the spirit to guide you to the truth, but maybe you have a conscience to stop the lying and deceive people to your doctrine of man.
Because spiritual things should be compared with spiritual truths, there must be no contradiction among verses of the Bible. Yes sure, so you admit that both of those versions are correct? As a rule therefore in determining which rendition of a particular verse expresses the truth, a verse should not be in opposition to any other verse of the bible because god, in whose will and guidance the bible was written, is not the author of confusion (I Cor. 14:33). So basically, the majority wins. And still, you stick to just one version to defend your INC Doctrine of Man. So, why was that?
It is for this reason that the Church of Christ believes that any translation of Hebrews 1:8 that puts it in such a way that Christ is being acknowledge as god by the father is unquestionably erroneous because such rendition categorically contradicts the following statements of the father himself: ok, so let's add Goodspeed Version as your authentic Bible version. Below are the scriptures he used vs the Goodspeed Translation in Green text.
“Acknowledge that I alone am God and that there is no else like me.” Isa. 46:9
John 1:1 In the beginning the Word existed. The Word was with God, and the Word was divine. 2 It was he that was with God in the beginning. 3 Everything came into existence through him, and apart from him nothing came to be. 4 It was by him that life came into existence, and that life was the light of mankind. - Goodspeed Translation
“… And you are my witnesses! Is there a God besides me? There is no rock; I know not any.” Isa. 44:8
John 8:58 Jesus said to them, "I tell you, I existed before Abraham was born!" - Goodspeed Translation
“…I am the only god. Besides me there is no other God; there never was and never will be.” Isa. 43:10
John 10:30 The Father and I are one." 31 The Jews again picked up stones to stone him with. 32 Jesus answered, "I have let you see many good things from the Father; which of them do you mean to stone me for?" 33 The Jews answered, "We are not stoning you for doing anything good, but for your impious talk, and because you, a mere man, make yourself out to be God." 34 Jesus answered, "Is it not declared in your Law, 'I said, "You are gods" '? 35 If those to whom God's message was addressed were called gods—and the Scripture cannot be set aside— Goodspeed Translation
Lest people suppose that there is one god in heaven but there is another in earth, the bible further adds:
“Therefore know this day, and consider it in your heart, that the lord himself is God in heaven above and on the earth beneath; there is no other.” Deut. 4:39
Colossians 1:15 He is a likeness of the unseen God, born before any creature, 16 for it was through him that everything was created in heaven and on earth, the seen and the unseen, angelic thrones, dominions, principalities, authorities—all things were created through him and for him. 17 He existed before all things and he sustains and embraces them all. 18 He is the head of the church, it is his body; for he is the beginning, the firstborn from among the dead—that he might come to stand first in everything. 19 For all the divine fulness chose to dwell in him, 20 and through him to reconcile to God all things on earth or in heaven, making this peace through his blood shed on the cross. Goodspeed Translation
But what does it mean that “God is [the son’s] throne”? The answer is found in Psalms 45:6, the very verse in the old testament that is quoted in Hebrews 1:8: of course, it was quoted by Paul in Psalm 45 as the fulfillment of Christ. But no I think you just can't accept it.
“Your throne is from god, for ever and ever, the scepter of your kingship a scepter of justice” New Jerusalem bible
And I guess this is the second version that qualifies your INC Doctrine of Man. Do you think so?
Clearly then, that god is the throne of the son denotes that the son’s throne is FROM GOD. Seriously, and Christ sits on the throne of God which is God. How do you understand that? Is it also taught in the new testament that the throne or authority that the son holds comes from no other than the almighty God? Throne or authority!? 🤔Hmm, which part is it? Yes it is. In fact, Christ himself taught this when he declared
“…’All authority has been given to me in heaven and on earth’.” Matt. 28:18 okay, so it means all thrones have been given to him. I never knew that. But it's nice to know a new thing, Job Bautista. Thank you for sharing that information. 😆
“All things have been delivered to me by my father,…” Matt. 11:27 oh yeah right, so it's a throne. Haven't heard that before. That's new.
Contrary therefore to the belief of some authors, nowhere in the bible, not even in Hebrews 1:8, does the father acknowledge the Son as “God”? FAIL, TRY AGAIN! What the holy scriptures openly teach regarding the issue is that the son jesus Christ, who is mistaken by some to be god, is introduced in the same epistle to Hebrews as “man” (Heb. 7:24) You're jumping to another irrelevant topic to cover up your error. and that he unmistakably acknowledged the father, not himself, as the “only true god” (John 17:1, 3) you simply assume that the Son was worship as the one True God. He was worship as the Son of God and you people even worship Christ as the Son of God but have a different understanding. The Angels worship him and Peter calls him God and Savior -
Lest people suppose that there is one god in heaven but there is another in earth, the bible further adds:
“Therefore know this day, and consider it in your heart, that the lord himself is God in heaven above and on the earth beneath; there is no other.” Deut. 4:39
Colossians 1:15 He is a likeness of the unseen God, born before any creature, 16 for it was through him that everything was created in heaven and on earth, the seen and the unseen, angelic thrones, dominions, principalities, authorities—all things were created through him and for him. 17 He existed before all things and he sustains and embraces them all. 18 He is the head of the church, it is his body; for he is the beginning, the firstborn from among the dead—that he might come to stand first in everything. 19 For all the divine fulness chose to dwell in him, 20 and through him to reconcile to God all things on earth or in heaven, making this peace through his blood shed on the cross. Goodspeed Translation
But what does it mean that “God is [the son’s] throne”? The answer is found in Psalms 45:6, the very verse in the old testament that is quoted in Hebrews 1:8: of course, it was quoted by Paul in Psalm 45 as the fulfillment of Christ. But no I think you just can't accept it.
“Your throne is from god, for ever and ever, the scepter of your kingship a scepter of justice” New Jerusalem bible
And I guess this is the second version that qualifies your INC Doctrine of Man. Do you think so?
Clearly then, that god is the throne of the son denotes that the son’s throne is FROM GOD. Seriously, and Christ sits on the throne of God which is God. How do you understand that? Is it also taught in the new testament that the throne or authority that the son holds comes from no other than the almighty God? Throne or authority!? 🤔Hmm, which part is it? Yes it is. In fact, Christ himself taught this when he declared
“…’All authority has been given to me in heaven and on earth’.” Matt. 28:18 okay, so it means all thrones have been given to him. I never knew that. But it's nice to know a new thing, Job Bautista. Thank you for sharing that information. 😆
“All things have been delivered to me by my father,…” Matt. 11:27 oh yeah right, so it's a throne. Haven't heard that before. That's new.
Contrary therefore to the belief of some authors, nowhere in the bible, not even in Hebrews 1:8, does the father acknowledge the Son as “God”? FAIL, TRY AGAIN! What the holy scriptures openly teach regarding the issue is that the son jesus Christ, who is mistaken by some to be god, is introduced in the same epistle to Hebrews as “man” (Heb. 7:24) You're jumping to another irrelevant topic to cover up your error. and that he unmistakably acknowledged the father, not himself, as the “only true god” (John 17:1, 3) you simply assume that the Son was worship as the one True God. He was worship as the Son of God and you people even worship Christ as the Son of God but have a different understanding. The Angels worship him and Peter calls him God and Savior -
2 Peter 1:1 Simon Peter, a slave and apostle of Jesus Christ, to those who through the uprightness of our God and Savior Jesus Christ have been given a faith as privileged as ours; - Goodspeed Translation