Christ was born in Bethlehem or Jerusalem?

Alma 7:10 And behold, he shall be born of Mary, at Jerusalem which is the land of our forefathers, she being a virgin, a precious and chosen vessel, who shall be overshadowed and conceive by the power of the Holy Ghost, and bring forth a son, yea, even the Son of God.

The title itself is misleading. The book of Mormon did not says "In Jerusalem" rather it is "At Jerusalem". There's a tricky word game that even LDS got confused on it's contents. But that only need simple comprehension or analysis (AT V.S. IN) Here's a catch -

The Bible specifically in the New Testament taught us clearly that the City of David was in Bethlehem, but it contradict in the Old Testament that says it is at Jerusalem.

So, Where exactly is the City of David? At Jerusalem or in Bethlehem? Actually, both is correct, you only need to analyze how it says at the geographic location of the promise land where Jerusalem was used as Capital Land.

2 Kings 14:20 And they brought him on horses: and he was buried at Jerusalem with his fathers in the city of David.

Luke 2:4 And Joseph also went up from Galilee, out of the city of Nazareth, into Judæa, unto the city of David, which is called Bethlehem; (because he was of the house and lineage of David:)

So, where's the City of David? Take a closer look "At Jerusalem" vs "which is called Bethlehem" or more likely "In Bethlehem".

Seem like you're saying I live In Philippines. Yeah, but Philippines is a huge place of different archipelago. So, where exactly?

Back to the topic. Before you make a conclusion, try to analyze the settings.

First, Is the person who speaks knows where Bethlehem is, or does he even knows the word Bethlehem in his days? Nope, he only knows the land of their forefathers which is Jerusalem, that's why he use the word "AT Jerusalem" to address it more closely to the place and it's sorrounding where the Saviour will be born.

Second, and will be the worse. If He was about to say the word Bethlehem where he don't have any knowledge of the place, obviously it will fall like it is man-made story with proofread failure. What happen here will be that the book obviously is not guided by revelations, instead a simple copy paste script. How could Joseph missed the exact location where he can use it as a source for translation? But he didn't use the Bible as his reference.

Christ was born in Bethlehem or Jerusalem?

Alma 7:10 And behold, he shall be born of Mary, at Jerusalem which is the land of our forefathers, she being a virgin, a precious and chosen vessel, who shall be overshadowed and conceive by the power of the Holy Ghost, and bring forth a son, yea, even the Son of God.

The title itself is misleading. The book of Mormon did not says "In Jerusalem" rather it is "At Jerusalem". There's a tricky word game that even LDS got confused on it's contents. But that only need simple comprehension or analysis (AT V.S. IN) Here's a catch -

The Bible specifically in the New Testament taught us clearly that the City of David was in Bethlehem, but it contradict in the Old Testament that says it is at Jerusalem.

So, Where exactly is the City of David? At Jerusalem or in Bethlehem? Actually, both is correct, you only need to analyze how it says at the geographic location of the promise land where Jerusalem was used as Capital Land.

2 Kings 14:20 And they brought him on horses: and he was buried at Jerusalem with his fathers in the city of David.

Luke 2:4 And Joseph also went up from Galilee, out of the city of Nazareth, into Judæa, unto the city of David, which is called Bethlehem; (because he was of the house and lineage of David:)

So, where's the City of David? Take a closer look "At Jerusalem" vs "which is called Bethlehem" or more likely "In Bethlehem".

Seem like you're saying I live In Philippines. Yeah, but Philippines is a huge place of different archipelago. So, where exactly?

Back to the topic. Before you make a conclusion, try to analyze the settings.

First, Is the person who speaks knows where Bethlehem is, or does he even knows the word Bethlehem in his days? Nope, he only knows the land of their forefathers which is Jerusalem, that's why he use the word "AT Jerusalem" to address it more closely to the place and it's sorrounding where the Saviour will be born.

Second, and will be the worse. If He was about to say the word Bethlehem where he don't have any knowledge of the place, obviously it will fall like it is man-made story with proofread failure. What happen here will be that the book obviously is not guided by revelations, instead a simple copy paste script. How could Joseph missed the exact location where he can use it as a source for translation? But he didn't use the Bible as his reference.

Christ was born in Bethlehem or Jerusalem?

Alma 7:10 And behold, he shall be born of Mary, at Jerusalem which is the land of our forefathers, she being a virgin, a precious and chosen vessel, who shall be overshadowed and conceive by the power of the Holy Ghost, and bring forth a son, yea, even the Son of God.

The title itself is misleading. The Book of Mormon did not say "In Jerusalem" rather it is "At Jerusalem". There's a tricky word game that even LDS got confused about its contents. But that only needs simple comprehension or analysis (AT V.S. IN) Here's a catch -

The Bible specifically in the New Testament taught us clearly that the City of David was in Bethlehem, but it contradicts the Old Testament that says it is 'at' Jerusalem.

So, Where exactly is the City of David? At Jerusalem or in Bethlehem? Both are correct, you only need to analyze how it says the geographic location of the promised land where Jerusalem was used as the Capital Land.

2 Kings 14:20 And they brought him on horses: and he was buried at Jerusalem with his fathers in the city of David.

Luke 2:4 And Joseph also went up from Galilee, out of the city of Nazareth, into Judæa, unto the city of David, which is called Bethlehem; (because he was of the house and lineage of David:)

So, where's the City of David? Take a closer look at "At Jerusalem" vs "which is called Bethlehem" or more likely "In Bethlehem".

Seem like you're saying I live In the Philippines. Yeah, but the Philippines is a huge place of different archipelago. So, where exactly?

Back to the topic. Before you conclude, try to analyze the settings.

First, Is the person who speaks knows where Bethlehem is, or does he even knows the word Bethlehem in his days? Nope, he only knows the land of their forefathers which is Jerusalem, that's why he uses the word "AT Jerusalem" to address it more closely to the place and its surrounding where the Saviour will be born.

Second, and will be the worse. If he (the speaker) said the place Bethlehem where he doesn't have any knowledge of the place, then how will you conclude it? It will fall like it is a man-made story with proofreading failure. What happens here will be that the book is not guided by revelations, but instead by a simple copy-paste script. It will be a big mistake talking to a place that the speaker doesn't even know that it exists. Can you See the beauty of translation? How could Joseph miss the exact location where he can use it (the bible) as a source for translation? But he didn't use the Bible as his reference.

Word end or Without

None-LDS were so critical in LDS teachings and the Book of Mormon, and claim that the Bible is infallible while the book of Mormon has a lots of disagreement and out of doctrine.

Ok, lets ponder for a while and try to resolve Isaiahs words that says something about the "World End" VS "The World without End". How would you resolve that conflict. The chapter 45 and 65 with the same verse.

See below -

Isaiah 45

17 But Israel shall be saved in the Lord with an everlasting salvation: ye shall not be ashamed nor confounded world without end.

18 For thus saith the Lord that created the heavens; God himself that formed the earth and made it; he hath established it, he created it not in vain, he formed it to be inhabited: I am the Lord; and there is none else.

Isaiah 65

17 For, behold, I create new heavens and a new earth: and the former shall not be remembered, nor come into mind.

18 But be ye glad and rejoice for ever in that which I create: for, behold, I create Jerusalem a rejoicing, and her people a joy.

Note: I know already how this goes, just want to challege everyone LDS and None-LDS for Scripture Study. I am not accusing the Bible or it's disagreements and we teach from the Scriptures. No need foul comment if you don't have any solutions.

_______

• World without End

Ephesians 3:21 Unto him be glory in the church by Christ Jesus throughout all ages, world without end. Amen.

A world without end. Does Paul misses something on his letter? Maybe in a rush? It's clearly says 'throughout all ages..' so plain and simple.

_______

• World End - ( New Heaven and New Earth)

2 Peter 3

12 Looking for and hasting unto the coming of the day of God, wherein the heavens being on fire shall be dissolved, and the elements shall melt with fervent heat?

13 Nevertheless we, according to his promise, look for new heavens and a new earth, wherein dwelleth righteousness.

This clearly says that everything will be distroyed by fire and all elements will melt because of heat. But the righteous has nothing to worry for God provides a new heavens and earth to those who love righteously.

-

Word end or Without.

None-LDS were so critical in LDS teachings and the Book of Mormon, and claim that the Bible is infallible while the book of Mormon has a lots of disagreement and out of doctrine.

Ok, lets ponder for a while and try to resolve Isaiahs words that says something about the "World End" VS "The World without End". How would you resolve that conflict. The chapter 45 and 65 with the same verse.

See below -

Isaiah 45

17 But Israel shall be saved in the Lord with an everlasting salvation: ye shall not be ashamed nor confounded world without end.

18 For thus saith the Lord that created the heavens; God himself that formed the earth and made it; he hath established it, he created it not in vain, he formed it to be inhabited: I am the Lord; and there is none else.

Isaiah 65

17 For, behold, I create new heavens and a new earth: and the former shall not be remembered, nor come into mind.

18 But be ye glad and rejoice for ever in that which I create: for, behold, I create Jerusalem a rejoicing, and her people a joy.

Note: I know already how this goes, just want to challege everyone LDS and None-LDS for Scripture Study. I am not accusing the Bible or it's disagreements and we teach from the Scriptures. No need foul comment if you don't have any solutions.

_______

• World without End

Ephesians 3:21 Unto him be glory in the church by Christ Jesus throughout all ages, world without end. Amen.

A world without end. Does Paul misses something on his letter? Maybe in a rush? It's clearly says 'throughout all ages..' so plain and simple.

_______

• World End - ( New Heaven and New Earth)

2 Peter 3

12 Looking for and hasting unto the coming of the day of God, wherein the heavens being on fire shall be dissolved, and the elements shall melt with fervent heat?

13 Nevertheless we, according to his promise, look for new heavens and a new earth, wherein dwelleth righteousness.

This clearly says that everything will be distroyed by fire and all elements will melt because of heat. But the righteous has nothing to worry for God provides a new heavens and earth to those who love righteously.

-

Word end or Without

None-LDS were so critical in LDS teachings and the Book of Mormon, and claim that the Bible is infallible while the book of Mormon has a lots of disagreement and out of doctrine.

Ok, lets ponder for a while and try to resolve Isaiahs words that says something about the "World End" VS "The World without End". How would you resolve that conflict. The chapter 45 and 65 with the same verse.

See below -

Isaiah 45

17 But Israel shall be saved in the Lord with an everlasting salvation: ye shall not be ashamed nor confounded world without end.

18 For thus saith the Lord that created the heavens; God himself that formed the earth and made it; he hath established it, he created it not in vain, he formed it to be inhabited: I am the Lord; and there is none else.

Isaiah 65

17 For, behold, I create new heavens and a new earth: and the former shall not be remembered, nor come into mind.

18 But be ye glad and rejoice for ever in that which I create: for, behold, I create Jerusalem a rejoicing, and her people a joy.

Note: I know already how this goes, just want to challege everyone LDS and None-LDS for Scripture Study. I am not accusing the Bible or it's disagreements and we teach from the Scriptures. No need foul comment if you don't have any solutions.

_______

• World without End

Ephesians 3:21 Unto him be glory in the church by Christ Jesus throughout all ages, world without end. Amen.

A world without end. Does Paul misses something on his letter? Maybe in a rush? It's clearly says 'throughout all ages..' so plain and simple.

_______

• World End - ( New Heaven and New Earth)

2 Peter 3

12 Looking for and hasting unto the coming of the day of God, wherein the heavens being on fire shall be dissolved, and the elements shall melt with fervent heat?

13 Nevertheless we, according to his promise, look for new heavens and a new earth, wherein dwelleth righteousness.

This clearly says that everything will be distroyed by fire and all elements will melt because of heat. But the righteous has nothing to worry for God provides a new heavens and earth to those who love righteously.

-

Who's He and Him?

Did Moses and some others saw God visibly?

The scripture taught us that Moses saw God face to face.

Exodus 24

9 Then went up Moses, and Aaron, Nadab, and Abihu, and seventy of the elders of Israel:

10 And they saw the God of Israel: and there was under his feet as it were a paved work of a sapphire stone, and as it were the body of heaven in his clearness.

11 And upon the nobles of the children of Israel he laid not his hand: also they saw God, and did eat and drink.

CONFLICT -

While in New Testament, it was clearly taught that no man, could ever saw God visibly and lived. It even directly points the time where Moses talked to him and received instructions for the people. 

John 1

17 For the law was given by Moses, but grace and truth came by Jesus Christ.

18 No man hath seen God at any time; the only begotten Son, which is in the bosom of the Father, HE hath declared HIM.

SOLVING THE PUZZLE -

Yes, Moses saw it, but John says no he didn't -

The solution is, read it carefully and understand how it says -

1. No man hath seen God at any time;

2. the only begotten Son (Christ),

3. which is in the bosom of the Father, (who was with the Father)

4. HE (which is Christ as stated)

5. hath declared HIM (Moses as the subject in verse 17).

Now read it again John 1:18, the second or third or on and on, then you'll see the answer.

Did you figure it out already? Christ was there before we knew him in the New Testament. The words that Moses received was his.

Who's He and Him?

Did Moses and some others saw God visibly?

The scripture taught us that Moses saw God face to face.

Exodus 24

9 Then went up Moses, and Aaron, Nadab, and Abihu, and seventy of the elders of Israel:

10 And they saw the God of Israel: and there was under his feet as it were a paved work of a sapphire stone, and as it were the body of heaven in his clearness.

11 And upon the nobles of the children of Israel he laid not his hand: also they saw God, and did eat and drink.

CONFLICT -

While in New Testament, it was clearly taught that no man, could ever saw God visibly and lived. It even directly points the time where Moses talked to him and received instructions for the people. 

John 1

17 For the law was given by Moses, but grace and truth came by Jesus Christ.

18 No man hath seen God at any time; the only begotten Son, which is in the bosom of the Father, HE hath declared HIM.

SOLVING THE PUZZLE -

Yes, Moses saw it, but John says no he didn't -

The solution is, read it carefully and understand how it says -

1. No man hath seen God at any time;

2. the only begotten Son (Christ),

3. which is in the bosom of the Father, (who was with the Father)

4. HE (which is Christ as stated)

5. hath declared HIM (Moses as the subject in verse 17).

Now read it again John 1:18, the second or third or on and on, then you'll see the answer.

Did you figure it out already? Christ was there before we knew him in the New Testament. The words that Moses received was his.